Post by andrew on Jun 2, 2022 14:39:57 GMT -6
My question that was rejected to be posted in his Facebook group is...
If in Isaiah the prophecy truly is that an 'Almah' (a young maiden) is with child, how does a young maiden (unmarried woman) who is pregnant (not a virgin) not punishable by Law considering the fact that this is spoken of HEBREW Woman??
The ONLY exception is if she bears a child without ever having sex, thus a virgin.
Even if the Septuagint got it wrong, or if the Rabbis changed it to Almah, it still makes this prophecy point to a virgin pregnancy, regardless of the interpretation of said prophecy.
Will a Rabbi please address this?
If in Isaiah the prophecy truly is that an 'Almah' (a young maiden) is with child, how does a young maiden (unmarried woman) who is pregnant (not a virgin) not punishable by Law considering the fact that this is spoken of HEBREW Woman??
The ONLY exception is if she bears a child without ever having sex, thus a virgin.
Even if the Septuagint got it wrong, or if the Rabbis changed it to Almah, it still makes this prophecy point to a virgin pregnancy, regardless of the interpretation of said prophecy.
Will a Rabbi please address this?
